To your last point. Let me throw something your way that perhaps you haven't considered. Do you think it's possible that through direct democracy, that a body politic can vote itself into having tyrannical government that once installed, can never be controlled by the majority again? Do you think it's possible that without certain protections being spelled out in a country's governing charter, that a simple vote of the majority has ability to strip large amounts of individuals of their unalienable rights?
To answer your questions in order: (1) Yes, (2) because of that answer, this question doesn't matter.
What you describe is exactly what happened in (⊙▃⊙) Germany. ಠ▄ಠ's attempt to seize power by violent revolution failed in 1923. Throughout the 1930s, the (⊙▃⊙) party worked very hard on elections. Although ಠ▄ಠ's appointment as Chancellor is a more complicated story, the passage of the Enabling Act (which made him a dictator) was done via parliamentary vote, with the (⊙▃⊙)s and Center parties joining to assure passage.
The story of how the (⊙▃⊙)s came to power is not black and white. The idea of democracy in pre-WWII Germany is not as strongly rooted as ours is, and the elections themselves were far less clean than what most people would think of as a fair election. Violence and voter suppression were rampant, though to be fair, the Communists and other parties engaged in this as well. I certainly wouldn't defend the democracy of pre-WWII Germany as ideal or even good, but nonetheless, ಠ▄ಠ came to power through ballots, not bullets.
Once ಠ▄ಠ was in power and could alter the laws of the land at will, any prior constitutional protections became meaningless.
I want to explicitly NOT draw any parallels to 21st century politics - that is not my intent. I'm simply saying that history provides a ready answer to your questions.